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If a wife contributed marginally to the marital home are they entitled to half the proceeds?
I am asking a question on behalf of my brother. He bought his house in 1993 and married in 2002. She lived with him for 2 years before. Only his name is on the deeds and that has always been the case. Unfortunately there are now two beautiful children to consider as well aged 4 and 3. His wife has only ever paid the Sky television and phone bill. He has paid all other bills. Will he have to give her half the proceeds of the house?
The fact that your brother's wife does not jointly own the former matrimonial home with him does not in itself affect her entitlement. The Court can make the same orders in respect of property owned by one party to a marriage within divorce proceedings as it can with property owned by both parties.
Whether the appropriate division would be 50/50 or not depends on a range of factors. It is impossible to advise your brother further without full details of both his and his wife's financial positions and certain other information.
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